Do you agree with T.S. Eliot that a dissociation of sensibility took place in the seventeenth century? Discuss. ( MEG 102 ) ( THE AGE OF DRYDEN )

T.S. Eliot's idea of the "dissociation of sensibility" refers to the idea that there was a split between the intellectual and emotional aspects of poetry that occurred in the 17th century. According to Eliot, prior to this period, poetry was characterized by a unity of thought and feeling, with poets able to express their emotions and ideas in a seamless and integrated way. However, with the rise of neoclassicism and the influence of French literature, there was a shift towards a more rational and intellectual mode of poetry, which placed a greater emphasis on reason and clarity than on emotion and imagination.

Eliot argues that this split between thought and feeling had a profound impact on English literature, and resulted in a decline in the quality and power of poetry. He believed that the dissociation of sensibility had led to a loss of the "poetic voice," and that poets were no longer able to express their deepest emotions and thoughts in a way that resonated with readers.

While Eliot's theory has been subject to some criticism, there is certainly evidence to suggest that there was a shift in the language and style of poetry in the 17th century, and that this shift had a significant impact on the development of English literature. However, it is important to note that not all poets of the period adhered to the neoclassical ideals that Eliot associates with the dissociation of sensibility. For example, John Milton's poetry, while often highly intellectual, also contains a great deal of emotional depth and passion.

Ultimately, whether or not one agrees with Eliot's theory of the dissociation of sensibility, it is clear that the language and style of poetry underwent a significant transformation during the 17th century, and that this transformation had a profound impact on the development of English literature.